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Jesus is a False Christ

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True or False?  Question: The name ‘Jesus’ was in existence in Bethlehem, Judah and inside or outside the Roman Empire,  when Christ was born until he was crucified. What is your answer? True or False?


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If your answer is ‘True’ then Jesus is the True Christ but if your answer is ‘False’ then Jesus is a False Christ.

But, if you say and testify that the name ‘Jesus’ had been in existence at that time, then you are telling a big lie because the Greek writers who wrote the new testament after the crucifixion of Christ are one in naming him Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous). In short, the name Jesus merely resulted from transliteration of a Greek name.

Allegedly, the Greek translation was taken from a Hebrew name of Christ. But if deeply scrutinized, as it would not appear to be deceptive if you are not conscious of pagan god Zeus as a possible subject of worship, a danger may be noticed because the name Iēsous sounds more to have a root name of ‘sous’ (Zeus). 

Besides, the Hebrew name can be translated/transliterated to English direct from Hebrew or without passing the Greek translation. Obviously, by doing so, even by transliteration,  the Hebrew name would less likely result to ‘Jesus’. Thus, it is apparent that the Greek translation, which became the basis  of the transliterated name ‘Jesus’ had contaminated the name to favor Zeus by deceptively inserting the  root name of said pagan god.

Also, if you give importance to the name of Christ being reflective of the name of the Heavenly Father, logically, said name, whatever it is, deserves originality unless the Heavenly Father Himself translated or transliterated the name of Christ, which is absent in this case.

Thus, obviously, Jesus is a False Christ.

In conclusion therefore, it is not good to rely on the act of men in translating or transliterating the name of Christ to whatever form, if you believe that God, being the sole source of the name, is the Almighty. It is because of possibility of contaminating or revising the name into some form, which is contradictory, as in the case of the name Jesus, where the root name of Zeus is prominent.

Some writers justify the erroneous name as follows:

In German, our English word for book is “buch.” In Spanish, it becomes a “libro;” in French, a “livre.” The language changes, but the object itself does not. In the same way, we can refer to Jesus as “Jesus,” “Yeshua,” or “YehSou” (Cantonese), without changing His nature. In any language, His name means “the Lord is Salvation.”

Notice however that the above justification is logically erroneous because the name of Christ or any name of a person is not similar or can not be equated to books. Secondly, if you are Pedro in the Philippines, you are still Pedro in other countries. Although, you may be called Peter in US, such name still needs your consent to be called by that name, especially when your identity is at issue.

And in the case of Christ, nobody can testify that he had himself consented to be called Jesus. Worst, his name was deceptively transliterated to bear the root name of Zeus. Consequently therefore, the transliteration of Christ’s name to Jesus is not proper for utter lack of consent.

Thirdly, the name of Christ, being reflective of the name of the Heavenly Father, is significantly superior to the names of mortals, such as kings, Popes and criminals, where aliases may be adopted. Therefore, it is illogical to treat them similarly.

Thus, finally, it is logical to say that if you are God obedient believer, you are obliged to adhere to the original name of Christ but if you are a Zeus believer,  then, you can continue to believe on the transliterated name ‘Jesus’, at your own risk, because Jesus, being fictitious, is a false Christ.

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