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Is the bible really holy and telling the truth that the true name of Christ is Jesus? These issues are worth discussing because billions of Christians are believing on the bible as holy and that allegedly, it contains the whole truth. Are these alleged holiness of the bible and truthfulness in it really so?
The hypothesis that maybe drawn as starting point for the discussion is that the bible is not holy, as it does not tell the whole truth.
First, we will settle the issue on alleged holiness of the bible by knowing first the meaning of word ‘holy’ as indicated in the old testament, more specifically in Leviticus 19:2, which states as follows:
2“Speak to all the congregation of the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘You shall be holy, for I the LORD your God am holy.(NIV)
For the above verse, how should the word ‘holy’ be understood as an adjective in relation to the subject that is being described in the verse? For example, the statement is: “You shall be holy” and “I the Lord your God am holy”. (more…)
Jesus Christ, who is a false Christ at the same time, a false God, is the biblical son of perdition being described in 2 Thessalonians 2:3-4, which states: “3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God”(KJV).
Jesus Christ is a false Christ considering that the name Jesus did not exist when Christ, who has a Hebrew name that is being pronounced as Yahushua, was born until he was crucified. In short, Jesus is a false name of Christ, Consequently, therefore, Jesus Christ is a false Christ.
Secondly, Yeshua, being the alleged Hebrew origin of Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous) that was finally transliterated to English name Jesus, if directly transliterated to English-that is-without passing through the Greek transliteration or translation, would result to Joshua, not Jesus. Therefore, Jesus is a false name of Christ, being obviously initially originating from a Greek name.
Also, if Jesus Christ is a false Christ, the more reason that he is a false God, even assuming that the wrong proposition that “Christ is God“, which is very objectionable because of Hebrews 2:17-18, is correct.
Hence, the proposition that Jesus Christ is both a false Christ and false God is logically acceptable.
Notice that verse 4 contains the literal descriptions of that man of sin, which descriptions are completely and consistently applicable to (more…)
Up against the proposition alleging that ‘Jesus is a fictitious name and therefore, Jesus Christ is a false Christ’, pro-Jesus proponents may also defend the falsehood in addition to other deceptive opinions by submitting the contrary proposition that: ‘The true Hebrew name of Christ is not critically needed in salvation, as the “saving truth’ of God could pass through another ordained or chosen man in addition to Jesus, who was allegedly ordained by God as the first Christ’.
Jesus refers to the extraordinary man born immaculately and ordained by God to be the first Christ (or Messiah) to deliver God’s Truth (Word) to humanity. Therefore, while Jesus’ life and messages/teachings are divine and relevant to man’s salvation, as these are wholly from the Father, Jesus, being merely a Spirit-filled man who fully expressed the will, wisdom, word and authority of God, should never be the center of devotion. Christ is not an exclusive reference to Jesus, as it is the condition wherein any ordained or chosen man (even to the present time) is filled with God’s Spirit (Word) for the purpose of delivering God’s “Saving Truth” to humanity. Christ is the omnipotence and omnipresence of the ONENESS in God. If one is Christ (more…)
In the second article, The Living Bible (TLB) translation of 2 Corinthians 3:6 concerning the “old way of trying to be saved by keeping the Ten Commandments of God as the biblical way that ends in death” was noted to be erroneous. It was also held that TLB had in fact interpreted the verse instead of merely translating it from Greek to English version, which is an error in itself.
Further, in the third article, it was held that there is no significant difference in the translation of the same verse between the “letter killeth” in King James Version (KJV) and American Standard Version (ASV) and the “written text that brings death” in International Standard Version (ISV). It was concluded that they are substantially the same.
Now, we will proceed to the proposition on how this letter kills or the written text brings death by focusing first on the phrase ‘x x x ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit x x x‘ (2 Corinthians 3:6, KJV) and ‘x x x ministers of a new covenant; not of the letter, but of the spirit x x x ‘ (2 Corinthians 3:6, ASV).
Notably, above phrase states the two categories of ministers such as: 1) ministers of the letter and 2) ministers of the spirit. Obviously, a spirit is an entity, so, therefore, the letter is likewise an entity, if you follow (more…)
In Second part of ‘J’ is the biblical letter that kills, we were able to eliminate the “old way of trying to be saved by keeping the Ten Commandments of God” as the biblical way that ends in death in 2 Corinthians 3:6. Thus, ‘The Living Bible’ (TLB) translation has to be set aside, being incorrect.
In this article, we will touch on whether or not there is significant difference in the translation of the same verse between ” the letter killeth” or “the letter that kills” in King James Version (KJV) and American Standard Version (ASV) and the “written text that brings death” in International Standard Version (ISV).
But before doing it, we will preliminarily touch on the meanings of 2 Corinthians 3:6 in KJV, ASV and ISV.
To stress, ASV translation of the verse is substantially the same in KJV, with verse 6 of 2 Corinthians 3 stating as follows:
“6who also made us sufficient as ministers of a new covenant; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life“.
Whereas KJV states that:
6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the (more…)
The ‘Jesus is God’ doctrine by Christians is blasphemous because it proposes that Jesus, who is a historically fictitious person created by King James in his contaminated bible, is God. To stress, such belief is a gross insult to the true God.
Also, the doctrine is false because Christ himself, who happened to be falsely called as Jesus, expressly referred to the Father in heaven as God, without expressly claiming for himself that he is also God.
In short, there is no valid historical and scriptural basis to say that ‘Jesus is God’.
Allegedly, the transliterated name Jesus is based on the alleged Greek translation of the Aramaic/Hebrew name of Christ. But as may be noted, what obviously comes out in the Greek translation and, finally, in English transliteration of the name, is rendering Christ’s Hebrew name as a name of the past, at the same time, replacing it with a pseudonym, which is bearing the root name of pagan god Zeus. (more…)
True or False? Question: The name ‘Jesus’ was in existence in Bethlehem, Judah and inside or outside the Roman Empire, when Christ was born until he was crucified. What is your answer? True or False?
If your answer is ‘True’ then Jesus is the True Christ but if your answer is ‘False’ then Jesus is a False Christ.
But, if you say and testify that the name ‘Jesus’ had been in existence at that time, then you are telling a big lie because the Greek writers who wrote the new testament after the crucifixion of Christ are one in naming him Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous). In short, the name Jesus merely resulted from transliteration of a Greek name.
Allegedly, the Greek translation was taken from a Hebrew name of Christ. But if deeply scrutinized, as it would not appear to be deceptive if you are not conscious of pagan god Zeus as a possible subject of worship, a danger may be noticed because the name Iēsous sounds more to have a root name of ‘sous’ (Zeus).
Besides, the Hebrew name can be translated/transliterated to English direct from Hebrew or without passing the Greek translation. Obviously, by doing so, even by transliteration, the Hebrew name would less likely result to ‘Jesus’. Thus, it is apparent that the Greek translation, which became the basis of the transliterated name ‘Jesus’ had contaminated the name to favor Zeus by deceptively inserting the root name of said pagan god.
Is Jesus or ‘J-ZEUS’ really not coming back? This question is relevant today as Christians and the world were deceptively made to believe by Roman Catholicism through Greek, Latin and English writers, who revised the Hebrew name of Christ in the bible through transliteration, that Jesus will come back.
In fact, King James and other versions of the bible emphatically convinced Christians and crossians to believe in the name ‘Jesus’, without honestly telling them that such name is nowhere to be found in Bethlehem or Judah or surrounding nations or even in Rome, when Christ was born and until he was crucified.
Naturally, as no ‘Jesus’ or ‘J-ZEUS’ had departed 2000 years ago in the first place, then, no man with such a name is expected to return.
This is how Roman Catholicism deceived the world and everybody is faithfully foolish to follow the lies of the Pope and the Roman Catholic leaders.
That’s why the Spokesman for the Vatican is honest in saying in substance that ‘no Jesus is coming back’, without telling honestly however, that Jesus is not the son of God, but may be the son of Greek demigod ZEUS. (more…)